TAX TREATMENT OF HIGHLY SKILLED INDIVIDUALS RULES
Table of Provisions (19)
Statutory Text (19 Articles)
SUBSIDIARY LEGISLATION 123.219
TAX TREATMENT OF HIGHLY SKILLED
INDIVIDUALS RULES
1 st January, 2026
LEGAL NOTICE 20 of 2026.
The title of these rules is the Tax Treatment of Highly
Skilled Individuals Rules.
(rules 2 and 3)
Competent authorities and eligible offices
Competent authorities
(a)
the Malta Financial Services Authority established by the
Malta Financial Services Authority in respect of any eligible office
with any undertaking licensed and, or recognised by the said body;
(b)
the Malta Gaming Authority established by article 5 of
the Gaming Act, in respect of any eligible office with any undertaking
licensed and, or recognised by the said body;
(c)
the Authority for Transport in Malta established by article
5 of the Authority for Transport in Malta Act in relation to the
following
(i)
any undertaking holding an air operators’
certificate issued in accordance with article 35 of the Air
Navigation Act, or an aerodrome license issued in accordance
with article 75 of the said Act;
(ii)
any undertaking holding a Document of
Compliance issued in terms of the International Safety
Management (ISM) Code or a Seafarer Recruitment and
Placement Services Licence issued in terms of the Maritime
Labour Convention, 2006;
(iii) any undertaking engaging the particular individual
for work on board any ship, excluding ships operating on regular
services as well as ships whose use or operation requires
certification in accordance with the Commercial Vessels
Regulations and which are berthed or anchored within the
territorial waters of Malta or any port in Malta for at least a
period of one (1) month over a calendar year, any undertaking
engaging in Shore Based Ship Management (Commercial
Management) (hereinafter collectively referred to as "maritime
activities"). For the purposes of this employment, the term
"regular services" shall have the meaning assigned to it in
Directive (EU) 2017/2110 of the European Parliament and of
the Council of 15 November 2017 on a system of inspections
for the safe operation of ro-ro passenger ships and high-speed
passenger craft in regular service and amending Directive 2009/
16/EC and repealing Council Directive 1999/35/EC; or
(iv) any undertaking which carries on mainly a trade
or business consisting in the Servicing of the offshore oil and
gas and ancillary services industry (hereinafter "Servicing of
the offshore oil and gas and ancillary services activities");
(d)
Office of the Chief Medical Officer to Government; and
(e)
Malta Enterprise.
Eligible offices regulated, licensed or recognised by the
above-mentioned competent authorities
.
Chief Executive Officer
.
Chief and, or Head Risk Officer (including Fraud and
Investigations Officer)
.
Chief Financial Officer
.
Chief Operations Officer
.
Chief Technology Officer/Chief Digital Officer
.
Chief Information Officer
.
Chief Customer Experience Officer
.
Chief Commercial Officer, (CCO)
.
A Chief and, or Head Compliance and AML (Anti-
Money Laundering) Officer
.
Head of Marketing (including Head of Distribution
Channels)
.
Chief Information Officer
In these rules, unless the context otherwise requires
"Act" means the Income Tax Act;
"artificial arrangements" means arrangements the terms
of which include
(a)
a beneficiary who receives any benefit or
payment, in whatever form, from a person who is related
to his employer and such beneficiary does not declare for
tax purposes such benefit or payment in Malta or is not
liable to tax on such income in Malta;
(b)
arrangements of collusion between
employer and employee to ensure that a contract which
in substance does not fall within the scope of these rules
and article 56(21) of the Act would be given a form
which enables it to qualify for benefits referred to in
these rules;
"Commissioner" means the Commissioner for Tax and
Customs;
"competent authority" means the body, agency, authority,
office or other person referred to in the Schedules;
"eligible office" means an employment or office where
the employment, office, employee or the employer, or any
combination thereof, is regulated, licensed or recognised by a
competent authority referred to in the Schedules;
"professional
qualifications"
means
relevant
qualifications attested by evidence of education qualifications
or, by way of derogation, when provided for by national law,
attested by at least five (5) years of professional experience of a
level comparable to education qualifications and which are
relevant in the profession or sector specified in the work
contract or binding job offer
Provided that for the purpose of this definition
"education qualification" means any evidence of formal
qualifications issued by an educational establishment attesting
the successful completion of a post-secondary education
programme, namely a set of courses provided by an educational
establishment recognised as an education institution by the
jurisdiction in which it is situated. An education qualification
shall be taken into account, on condition that the studies
required to acquire it lasted at least three (3) years; and
"professional experience" means the actual and lawful
pursuit of the profession concerned.
(rules 2 and 3)
Competent authority and eligible offices
Competent Authority
The Malta Financial Services Authority established by the Malta
Financial Services Authority Act in respect of any eligible office with
any undertaking licensed and, or recognised by the said body;
Eligible offices regulated, licensed or recognised by the above-
mentioned competent authority
.
Portfolio Manager
.
Chief Investment Officer
.
Senior Trader
.
Senior Structuring Professional
.
Actuarial Professional
.
Chief Underwriting Officer
.
Chief Insurance Technical Officer
.
Head of Investor Relations
.
Private Equity Fund Manager
Eligible offices with Family Offices
(i)
eligible offices listed in this part of this Schedule
held within the context of Single Family Offices and held with
(a)
fund managers established in Malta which
are exempt from the requirement for an investment
services licence in accordance with regulation 3(1)(f) of
the Investment Services Act (Exemption) Regulations, to
the extent that the notified PIF they manage constitutes a
family office vehicle which invests the private wealth of
its investors without raising external capital;
(b)
fund managers established in Malta which
are exempt from the requirement for an investment
services licence in accordance with regulation 3(1)(t) of
the Investment Services Act (Exemption) Regulations, to
the extent that the notified PIF they manage constitutes a
family office vehicle which invests the private wealth of
its investors without raising external capital;
(c)
registered trustees which invest, on behalf
of a family trust, inter alia in a notified PIF which is
managed by a fund manager which is exempt from the
requirement for an investment services licence in
accordance with regulation 3(1)(f) or regulation 3(1)(t)
of the Investment Services Act (Exemption) Regulations,
to the extent that the notified PIF they manage
constitutes a family office vehicle which invests the
private wealth of its investors without raising external
capital;
(d)
licence holders which invest the private
wealth of investors without raising external capital. For
the purposes of this sub-paragraph (d), "licence holder"
shall also include notified PIFs.
(ii)
eligible offices listed in this part of this Schedule
held within the context of Multi Family Offices and held with
Licence Holders which invest the private wealth of investors
without raising external capital.
(iii) eligible offices listed in this part of this Schedule
held with companies and other undertakings carrying on Back
Office Services to the undertakings referred to in paragraph (i)
or (ii) in this part of this Schedule that is confirmed as such in
writing by the competent authority for the purposes of these
rules.
(iv) eligible offices listed in this part of this Schedule
held with companies and other undertakings carrying on
Treasury Management Operations to the undertakings referred
to in paragraph (i) or (ii) in this part of this Schedule that is
confirmed as such in writing by the competent authority for the
purposes of these regulations.
(v)
for the purposes of paragraphs (i) to (iv) of this
part of this Schedule
"eligible offices listed in this part of this
Schedule" means
.
Head of the Back Office and, or
Chief Executive Officer, General Manager,
Country Head, Managing Director or equivalent
designation
.
Chief and, or Head Risk Officer
Chief and, or Head Compliance and Anti-Money
Laundering Officer
.
Portfolio Manager
.
Chief/Head Investment Officer
.
Senior Trader
.
Senior Structuring Professional
"licence holder" means a person who holds a licence issued by
the Malta Financial Services Authority;
"Multi Family Office" means a licence holder that exclusively
manages the wealth of more than one (1) high-net-worth family;
"Notified PIF" means a notified Professional Investor Fund
established in accordance with the Investment Services Act (Notified
CISs) Regulations;
"registered trustee" means a trustee which is registered with the
competent authority in terms of article 43B of the Trusts and Trustees
"Single Family Office" means an undertaking that solely
manages the wealth of a single high-net-worth family;
(1)
Income from a qualifying contract of employment
shall qualify under these rules when it is received by a beneficiary and
consists in income subject to tax under article 4(1)(b) of the Act,
exclusive of the annual value of any fringe benefits, of a minimum of
sixty-five thousand euro (€65,000) and consists of emoluments from an
eligible office
Provided that the said minimum of sixty-five thousand
euro (€65,000) shall be adjusted by an increase of ten thousand euro
(€10,000) every five (5) years with effect from the year subsequent to
the year in which these rules come into force
Provided further that where the minimum income
specified under the legislation listed in paragraphs (a) to (e) of rule
12(1) was below sixty-five thousand euro (€65,000), the minimum
amount of income referred to in this sub-rule shall be as follows
(a)
for the first year in which these rules come into
force, the minimum amount shall be the amount applicable to
that beneficiary specified in the rules listed in paragraphs (a) to
(e) of rule 12(1);
(b)
for the second year in which these rules are in
force, the minimum amount shall be the amount for the first year
increased by ten thousand euro (€10,000); and
(c)
for the third year in which these rules are in force,
the minimum amount shall be the minimum amount referred to
in sub-rule (1).
(2)
A qualifying contract of employment shall be considered
to be such if the employment activity contemplated in the contract of
employment is an eligible office.
(3)
The offices which are eligible for the reduced rate of tax
are listed in the Schedules.
(rules 2 and 3)
Competent authority and eligible offices
Competent Authority
The Authority for Transport in Malta established by article 5 of
the Authority for Transport in Malta Act in relation to the following
(i)
any undertaking holding an air operators’
certificate issued in accordance with article 35 of the Air
Navigation Act, or an aerodrome license issued in accordance
with article 75 of the said Act; or
(ii)
any undertaking holding a Document of
Compliance issued in terms of the International Safety
Management (ISM) Code or a Seafarer Recruitment and
Placement Services Licence issued in terms of the Maritime
Labour Convention, 2006;
(iii) any undertaking engaging the particular
individual for work on board any ship, excluding ships
operating on regular services as well as ships whose use or
operation requires certification in accordance with the
Commercial Vessels Regulations and which are berthed or
anchored within the territorial waters of Malta or any port in
Malta for at least a period of one (1) month over a calendar
year, any undertaking engaging in Shore Based Ship
Management
(Commercial
Management)
(hereinafter
collectively referred to as "maritime activities"). For the
purposes of this employment, the term "regular services" shall
have the meaning assigned to it in Directive (EU) 2017/2110 of
the European Parliament and of the Council of 15 November
2017 on a system of inspections for the safe operation of ro-ro
passenger ships and high-speed passenger craft in regular
service and amending Directive 2009/16/EC and repealing
Council Directive 1999/35/EC; or
(iv) any undertaking which carries on mainly a trade
or business consisting in the Servicing of the offshore oil and
gas and ancillary services industry (hereinafter "Servicing of
the offshore oil and gas and ancillary services activities");
Eligible offices regulated, licensed or recognised by the
above-mentioned competent authority
Aviation
.
Chief Investment Officer
.
Chief Insurance Officer
TAX TREATMENT OF HIGHLY SKILLED INDIVIDUALS
.
Accountable Manager
.
Deputy Accountable Manager
.
General Manager
.
Flight Operations Manager
.
Nominated Person Flight Operations
.
Training Manager
.
Nominated Person Training
.
Ground Operations
.
Nominated Person Ground Operations
.
Continuing Airworthiness Manager
.
Nominated Person Continuing Airworthiness
.
Compliance Manager
.
Quality Systems Manager
.
Safety Manager
.
Flight Dispatch Manager
.
Instructor Manager
.
Head of Marketing
.
Head of Public Relations
.
Actuary
.
Underwriting Manager
.
Risk Management Officer
.
Key account manager
.
Product coordinator
.
Material coordinator
.
Engineering reporter
.
Aeronautical engineer
.
Head of Maintenance Operations
.
Aviation Systems Developer
.
Key Aviation Specialist
Maritime Activities
.
Managing Director
.
General Manager
.
Crewing Manager
.
Technical Manager
.
Chartering Manager
.
Operations Manager
.
Commercial/Business Development Manager
.
Manager responsible for ESG/Energy Transition
.
Technical Ship Superintendent
.
Designated Person Ashore
.
Master
.
Chief Mate
.
Second Officer
.
Company Security Officer
.
Chief Engineer
.
Second Engineer
.
Chef
Servicing of the Offshore Oil and Gas and Ancillary
Services Industry Activities
Head of Training Academy (which Academy shall be certified
by an international accreditation institution).
A beneficiary is an individual who satisfies all of the
following conditions
(a)
he is an individual who derives income subject to
tax under article 4(1)(b) of the Act, being emoluments payable
under a qualifying contract of employment, and received in
respect of work or duties carried out in Malta, or with regard to
any period spent outside Malta in relation to such work or
duties, or on leave during the carrying out of such work or
duties;
(b)
he is protected as an employee in accordance with
Maltese law, irrespective of the legal relationship between the
employee and the employer, for the purpose of exercising
genuine and effective work for, or under the direction of,
someone else, is paid, and has the required adequate and
specific competence, as proven to the satisfaction of the
competent authority;
(c)
he proves to the satisfaction of the competent
authority that he is in possession of professional qualifications;
(d)
he is not an individual who has benefited under
article 6 of the Act;
(e)
he fully discloses for tax purposes and declares
emoluments received in respect of income from a qualifying
contract of employment and all income received from a person
who is related to his employer in respect of an activity which is
substantively derived from the employment covered by the
qualifying contract of employment as are chargeable to tax in
Malta;
(f)
he proves to the satisfaction of the competent
authority that he performs activities of an eligible office;
(g)
he proves to the satisfaction of the competent
authority that
(i)
he is in receipt of stable and regular
resources which are sufficient to maintain himself and a
family in Malta which are comparable to his, without
recourse to the social assistance system in Malta;
(ii)
he resides in accommodation regarded as
normal in Malta for himself, and where he forms part of a
family living in Malta, for a comparable family in Malta,
and which satisfies the general health and safety
standards in force in Malta;
(iii)
he is in possession of a valid travel
document;
(iv) he is in possession of private medical
insurance in respect of all risks normally covered for
Maltese nationals for himself and the members of his
family, irrespective of who is responsible for the cost of
such insurance; and
(v)
he is not domiciled in Malta; and
(h)
such other conditions as may be deemed fit by the
competent authority, including conditions in respect of training
personnel in the field of expertise related to the relevant eligible
office of the beneficiary.
(rules 2 and 3)
Competent authority and eligible offices
Competent authority
Office of the Chief Medical Officer to Government
Eligible offices in Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART)
regulated, licensed or recognised by the above-mentioned
competent authority
.
Embryologist
.
Responsible Person
.
Lead Quality Manager
(1)
An application for a formal determination relating
to eligibility under these rules and article 56(21) of the Act shall be
made on such form or in such manner as the competent authority, in
agreement with the Commissioner, may require and shall contain the
information and documents therein requested
Provided that such an application may be made between
1 st January 2026 and 31 st December 2035
Provided further that no such application may be accepted
by any competent authority after 31 st December 2036.
(2)
Such application shall be submitted to the relevant
competent authority which shall process the application and issue a
formal determination of eligibility under these rules and article 56(21)
of the Act or a refusal of the application, as the case may be, within a
period of ninety (90) days from receipt of the said application in such
manner as the Commissioner shall determine.
(3)
For the purpose of processing an application under these
rules, the said competent authority may require the applicant to
produce, within the time indicated by the competent authority in that
request, such further information and documents as they may consider
necessary, including certifications and declarations of the employer of
that individual. Where such a request is made, the period of ninety (90)
days referred to in sub-rule (2) shall commence to run from the date of
receipt of the information requested.
(4)
If an individual fails, without any valid reason, to fully
comply with any request made by the competent authority under the
provisions of sub-rule (3) within the time indicated, the competent
authority shall refuse the application and inform the Commissioner of
such refusal.
(5)
Within the period referred to in sub-rule (2) or (3), as the
case may be, the competent authority shall inform the Commissioner of
such determination or refusal. The Commissioner shall endorse such
determination or refusal and inform the applicant accordingly, in such
manner as the Commissioner shall determine.
(6)
The competent authority shall, on an annual basis, send a
list of applications received and their status to the Commissioner.
(rules 2 and 3)
Competent authority and eligible offices
Competent authority
The Malta Gaming Authority established by article 5 of the
Gaming Act, in respect of any eligible office with any undertaking
licensed and, or recognised by the said body.
Eligible offices regulated, licensed or recognised by the
above-mentioned competent authority
.
Odds Compiler Specialist
.
Head of Research and Development (including Search
Engine Optimisation and Systems Architecture)
.
Portfolio Manager
.
Senior Analyst
.
Senior Trader
.
Head of Investment/Chief Investment Officer
.
Head of Responsible Gaming
.
Chief People Officer
.
Chief Legal Officer
(1)
Once a formal determination of eligibility has
been issued by the competent authority under the provisions of rule 5,
the option available under article 56(21) of the Act may be exercised
Provided that such option available may not be exercised
in respect of any year of assessment preceding the year of assessment
2027. (2)
The said option shall be exercised by means of a
declaration signed by the beneficiary and endorsed by the competent
authority that shall be made on such form publicly available on the
apposite website or in such manner as the Commissioner may require.
Such declaration shall specify the years of assessment in relation to
which the exercise of the option relates.
(3)
The said option shall not be deemed to have been validly
exercised unless the income to which it applies has been fully and
correctly declared in the said tax return and unless the said declaration
and tax return are filed by not later than the relative tax return date.
(rules 2 and 3)
Competent authority and eligible offices
Competent authority
Malta Enterprise
Eligible offices in the area of STEM (Science, Technology,
Engineering and Mathematics) regulated, licensed or recognised
by the above-mentioned competent authority
Science
.
Biologist
.
Chemist
.
Physicist
.
Environmental Scientist
.
Medical Researcher
Technology
.
Software Developer/Engineer
.
Data Scientist
.
Cybersecurity Analyst
.
Web Developer
.
Artificial Intelligence Specialist
Engineering
.
Mechanical Engineer
.
Civil Engineer
.
Electrical Engineer
.
Chemical Engineer
.
Aerospace Engineer
Mathematics
.
Mathematician
.
Statistician
TAX TREATMENT OF HIGHLY SKILLED INDIVIDUALS
.
Operations Research Analyst
(1)
The benefits under these rules and article 56(21)
of the Act shall apply in relation to employment income that is
specified in rule 4 and that is earned during a period of five (5) years
commencing to run from the year in relation to which a formal
determination was issued under the provisions of these rules, and as
determined under rule 5(2)
Provided that the option under article 56(21) of the Act
shall be exercised as provided under the provisions of rule 6.
(2)
Without prejudice to the provisions of sub-rule (3), any
individual who benefits under the provisions of sub-rule (1), upon
submitting an application on such form or in such manner as the
competent authority, in agreement with the Commissioner, may
require, shall be eligible to two (2) further extensions of five (5) years
for his qualifying period, as subject to the continued adherence to the
other provisions of these rules and article 56(21) of the Act. Such
application shall be made during the year before the end of the relevant
five (5) year qualifying period.
(3)
Notwithstanding any stipulation to the contrary
contained in these rules and article 56(21) of the Act, benefits under
the provisions of these rules and article 56(21) of the Act shall not
apply in relation to income earned after 31st December 2040.
When an individual exercises the option available under
article 56(21) of the Act in respect of a year of assessment, the
minimum amount of income which shall be chargeable to tax at the
reduced rate provided for in the said article in respect of that year of
assessment shall be deemed to be sixty-five thousand euro (€65,000)
Provided that the minimum amount of income of sixty-
five thousand euro (€65,000) shall be adjusted in accordance with the
provisions of the provisos to rule 3(1)
Provided further that in the case of a beneficiary to whom
the second proviso to rule 3(1) applies, the minimum amount of income
which shall be chargeable to tax at the reduced rate shall be determined
in accordance with the minimum amounts applicable for the first,
second, and third years, as specified in the said proviso
Provided further that the rate of fifteen percent (15%)
shall apply without possibility to claim any relief, deduction, reduction,
credit or set-off of any kind. Notwithstanding the generality of
foregoing, a beneficiary shall be allowed deductions of tax in
accordance with article 23 of the Income Tax Management Act.
When an individual exercises the option available under
article 56(21) of the Act in respect of a year of assessment, the rate of
fifteen percent (15%) shall apply on an amount of emoluments payable
not exceeding seven million euro (€7,000,000). Any emoluments
payable in excess of the said amount of seven million euro
(€7,000,000) shall constitute remaining income for the purposes of
paragraph (a) of the proviso to article 56(21) of the Act and
consequently, the tax on such remaining income shall be calculated at
the rates that would have been applicable to that remaining income had
the option not been exercised.
(1)
For the purpose of ascertaining an individual’s
right to exercise the option referred to in article 56(21) of the Act and
ensuring the proper application of these rules and article 56(21) of the
Act, the Commissioner and, or the competent authority may require
that individual to produce, within the time-frame indicated by the
Commissioner and, or the competent authority in such request, any
further information and documents as they may consider necessary,
including certifications and declarations of the employer in connection
with such individual.
(2)
If an individual fails, without any valid reason, to comply
with any request relating to his income made to him by the
Commissioner and, or the competent authority in accordance with this
rule, the Commissioner may order that article 56(21) of the Act shall
not apply to such income. In such a case, the Commissioner may make
an assessment and the tax on such income shall be calculated at the
rates provided for in the Act without any reference to the said article.
Where an individual fails to produce the information requested
pursuant to a request made by the competent authority on its own, the
said competent authority shall inform the Commissioner without delay
and in any case not later than thirty (30) days of such failure.
(1)
Where any person, in order to obtain benefits
under these rules, makes use of artificial arrangements, the
Commissioner shall by order in writing, determine the liability to tax
of the said person, for any year of assessment, in such manner and in
such amount as may be necessary in the circumstances of the case to
nullify benefits obtained under these rules.
(2)
A person who disagrees with an order served upon him in
accordance with sub-rule (1) shall have the same rights to object such
order and to appeal from a decision of the Commissioner refusing that
objection as if that order were an assessment issued in accordance with
the Income Tax Management Act, and the relevant provisions of the
said Act relating to objections and appeals shall apply mutatis
mutandis.
(1)
Individuals who, on the 31 December 2025
qualified as beneficiaries under the
(a)
Highly Qualified Persons Rules;
(b)
Qualifying Employment
in
Innovation
and
Creativity (Personal Tax) Rules;
(c)
Qualifying Employment in Aviation (Personal
Tax) Rules;
(d)
Qualifying Employment in Maritime Activities
and the Servicing of Offshore Oil and Gas Industry Activities
(Personal Tax) Rules; or
(e)
Senior Employees of Family Offices, Back
Offices and Treasury Management Operations Tax Rules,
shall, where an application is made with the relevant competent
authority, be considered to be a beneficiary under these rules. The
competent authority shall issue a determination to this effect within
sixty (60) days of submission of such application and inform the
Commissioner thereof in such manner as the Commissioner may
determine. Where a determination is issued under this rule, the
individual shall be considered a beneficiary for a period of five (5)
years commencing to run from the year of assessment in which the
determination is issued, and the provisions of rule 7(2) shall apply
mutatis mutandis to any individual benefiting from this rule
Provided that such application shall be made not later
than 31 December 2028, in such manner and as the Commissioner and
the competent authority shall determine
Provided further that notwithstanding any other
provision to the contrary, the provisions of the second proviso to rule
5(1) of the Highly Qualified Persons Rules shall continue to apply
under these rules and article 56(21) of the Act, for income earned in
the year in which the application under this rule has been made by
individuals that were beneficiaries under the said Highly Qualified
Person rules.
(2)
Notwithstanding any provision in the Income Tax Acts
and rules and regulations made thereunder
no determination shall be issued after 31 st
(a)
December 2025 for applications made after that said date; and
(b)
no further benefit may be availed of after year of
assessment 2030,
under the rules referred to in sub-rule (1)(a) to (e).