Legislator Case Law & Legislation
IEHC 690 ECLI:IE:HC:2024:690 AI generated

High Court discharges leave to challenge exempted development regulations abstractly due to procedural defects.

Case Number IEHC 690
Court / Authority
Jurisdiction Ireland (IE)
Decision Date
Outcome Dismissed

Legislator summary

AI generated

The applicant sought to challenge exempted development regulations in the abstract without referencing a specific development, prompting the State to request the discharge of the leave order. The court found that while an arguable point existed regarding the reasonableness of the exemption, the applicant failed to plead the grounds in legally correct, particularized terms or situate the challenge within the required context of a specific development. Consequently, the court ordered the discharge of the leave to proceed with the judicial review.

Legislator headnote

AI generated

s. 31(1) of the Courts Act 2004; s. 31(2) of the Courts Act 2004: Leave to challenge exempted development regulations in the abstract must be granted only if the applicant pleads grounds in particularized terms and situates the challenge within the context of a specific development.

Keywords

AI generated
exempted development regulations abstract challenge judicial review leave procedural defects discharge of leave particularized pleading specific development context

Cited Legislation

AI generated
s. 31(1) of the Courts Act 2004
s. 31(2) of the Courts Act 2004
Development Act 2000
provisions of the Planning and Development Act 2000.
Institutional Burials Act 2022
Institutional Burials Act 2022;
Roads Act 1993
national road within the meaning of the Roads Act 1993) that consists of—
Casual Trading Act, 1995
(within the meaning of the Casual Trading Act, 1995);
Land Reclamation Act, 1949
Land Reclamation Act, 1949, not being works comprised in the fencing or enclosure
Other Minerals Development Act 1960
Other Minerals Development Act 1960, in accordance with a licence under section 8,
section 40 of the Gas Act 1976
accordance with a consent under subsection (1) of section 40 of the Gas Act 1976, of an
Dumping At Sea Act 1996
DUMPING AT SEA ACT, 1996

Cited Case Law

AI generated
[2024] IEHC 520
High Court dismisses ex parte injunction application against Minister's use of hotel for Ukrainian refugees under exempted development regulations.
[2024] IESC 34
[2022] IESC 32
[2022] IESC 32, [2023] 2 I.R.
[2024] IEHC 364
Leave granted for disproportionate impact and lack of reasons challenge against bus stop planning decision.
[2024] IESC 28
[2024] IESC 28 (Unreported, Supreme Court, 4th July 2024) per Murray J.
[2023] IECA 61
Environment and Local Government [2023] IECA 61 (Unreported, Court of Appeal, 16th March 2023)
AI generated

Need to analyze how this precedent applies to your matter?

Cross-reference this judgment against statutes, commentaries, and subsequent citing case law inside Legislator AI.

Open in Legislator →

Full text

[2024] IEHC 690

THE HIGH COURT

PLANNING & ENVIRONMENT

[H.JR.2024.0000588]

BETWEEN

PATRICK MCGREAL

APPLICANT

AND

THE MINISTER FOR HOUSING, LOCAL GOVERNMENT AND HERITAGE OF IRELAND

RESPONDENT

(II)

JUDGMENT of Humphreys J. delivered on Friday the 6th day of December 2024

1. The applicant seeks to challenge exempted development regulations which facilitate housing

of international protection seekers and displaced persons. The applicant having been granted leave

to challenge such regulations in the abstract without reference to a specific development, the State

now seeks to discharge the leave order. The issue is whether the criteria for discharge have been

met.

Judgment history

2. The applicant, a litigant in person, has brought previous proceedings in order to challenge

particular accommodation facilities in County Tipperary, on the basis of the purported invalidity of

Planning and Development (Exempted Development) (No. 4) Regulations 2023 (S.I. No. 376 of

2023) (the 2023 regulations), in proceedings numbered 2024 No. 971 JR. On 31st July 2024, the

applicant’s ex parte application for an injunction seeking to restrain the use of those accommodation

facilities was refused by Holland J.: McGreal v. Minister for Housing [2024] IEHC 520 (which I will

refer to as McGreal I). As the State emphasises, that application was made on similar grounds but

in the context of a challenge to the use of a particular accommodation facility, the present

proceedings seek to impugn generally the validity of the 2023 regulations without reference to any

particular accommodation facility. To distinguish, these proceedings can be referred to as McGreal

II. Facts

3. There are no specific facts related to any specific development involved in the challenge.

The point made is a general and abstract one, so the background is addressed in legal analysis

below.

Procedural history

4. By ex parte docket dated variously 29th and 30th April 2024, with the record number of the

present proceedings, the applicant sought a number of reliefs against the respondent, including

injunctive relief, declaratory relief, and relief by way of prohibition, to prevent the provision of

accommodation to displaced persons and persons seeking international protection in the State.

5. The actual date was presumably 30th April 2024 because the record number was assigned

on that date when a statement of grounds was filed.

6. Whatever about seeking an injunction in the ex parte docket, there was no basis to seek

prohibition or declarations because those would be for a substantive hearing of a judicial review.

The ex parte docket should have sought leave to seek those reliefs.

7. The applicant’s ex parte application came on for hearing before Hyland J. on 30th April 2024

whereupon Hyland J. naturally enough declined to grant the applicant the reliefs being sought, noted

that no application for leave to apply for judicial review had been made, and adjourned the matter

for mention to 17th June 2024, when an application for leave to seek judicial review could be

brought.

8. On 17th June 2024, the applicant applied ex parte for leave to apply for judicial review

seeking the following reliefs:

“(1) Injunction - prevent the use of S.I. No. 376/2023 - Planning and Development

(Exempted Development) (No 4) Regulations 2023.

(2) Injunction - prevent the movement of displaced persons or persons seeking international

protection throughout the state into accommodation that is not within the scope of the

provisions of the Planning and Development Act 2000.

(3) Injunction - prevent the movement of displaced persons or persons seeking international

protection throughout the state into accommodation that is not within the scope of the

provisions of the Constitution of Ireland.

(4) Prohibition - prevent action being taken to accommodate any displaced persons or

persons seeking international protection outside the provisions of the Planning and

Development Act 2000.

(5) Prohibition - prevent action being taken to accommodate any displaced persons or

persons seeking international protection outside the provisions of the Constitution of Ireland.

(6) Declaration - A declaration that any action being taken to accommodate any displaced

persons or persons seeking international protection must adhere to the provisions of the

Planning and Development Act 2000.

(7) Declaration - A declaration that any action being taken to accommodate any displaced

persons or persons seeking international protection must adhere to the provisions of the

Constitution of Ireland.”

9. On 17th June 2024, Hyland J. granted the applicant leave to apply for judicial review for all

of the reliefs on the grounds set out in the applicant’s statement required to ground his application

for judicial review dated 29th April 2024.

10. The respondent was served with the applicant’s judicial review papers on 19th June 2024.

11. The substantive notice of motion was filed on 25th June 2024.

12. On 24th October 2024, the respondent filed a notice of motion seeking to set aside leave,

grounded on the affidavit of an official of the Department of Housing, Local Government and

Heritage.

13. The applicant replied by affidavit filed on 11th November 2024. Two points stand out.

(i) Firstly, a number of provisions of the affidavit, including paras. 50 to 68 (alleging

fraud and perjury by various persons) and 122 to 129 (irrelevantly alleging bias in

previous proceedings) and 165 (alleging perjury) and 195 (possible offences) are

dubious on various grounds. The State in correspondence of 27th November 2024

raised the issue of striking out inappropriate averments under O. 41 r. 16 RSC,

specifically at paras. 50 to 84 and 172 to 175. At the hearing the State did not make

any formal application but reserved its position in that regard.

(ii) Secondly, it is not permissible to expand the pleaded case by way of affidavit. That

brings us to the question of how much latitude a court should allow in permitting a

litigant in person to amend a statement of grounds in order to incorporate points

that are not properly pleaded but are elsewhere in her papers. I will come to that

later.

The 2023 regulations

14. At the risk of generalisation, the main categories of persons requesting reception provision

on arrival in the State are individual applicants for asylum/ subsidiary protection, who arrive

individually or in family groups, and displaced persons from Ukraine who have arrived by way of

mass displacement since the Russian Federation’s full-scale war of aggression.

15. Council Directive 2001/55/EC of 20 July 2001 on minimum standards for giving temporary

protection in the event of a mass influx of displaced persons and on measures promoting a balance

of efforts between Member States in receiving such persons and bearing the consequences thereof

provides for the temporary reception of displaced persons.

16. Separately, the State is required to provide accommodation to protection seekers in line with

its obligations under EU law and the European Communities (Reception Conditions) Regulations 2018

(S.I. No. 230 of 2018).

17. Class 20F of exempted development was initially inserted into the Planning and Development

Regulations 2001 by the Planning and Development (Exempted Development) (No. 4) Regulations

2022 (S.I. No. 605 of 2022) (“the 2022 regulations”), in order to include as part of that class the

temporary use of such structures for the purpose of accommodating or supporting persons who were

displaced from Ukraine as a result of the Russian Federation’s full-scale invasion of Ukraine and who

were entitled to temporary protection in Ireland under EU law. The 2023 regulations insert an

exemption for the following development:

“Temporary use by or on behalf of the Minister for Children, Equality, Disability, Integration

and Youth to accommodate or support displaced persons or persons seeking international

protection of any structure or part of a structure used as a school, college, university,

training centre, social centre, community centre, non-residential club, art gallery, museum,

library, reading room, sports club or stadium, gymnasium, hotel, convention centre,

conference centre, shop, office, Defence Forces barracks, light industrial building, airport

operational building, wholesale warehouse or repository, local authority administrative

office, play centre, medical and other health and social care accommodation, event and

exhibition space or any structure or part of structure normally used for public worship or

religious instruction.”

18. The specification of developments of that class as exempted developments is subject to

certain specific conditions and limitations, including that the temporary use is to be only for the

purposes of accommodating displaced persons or for the purposes of accommodating persons

seeking international protection, and that such use is to be discontinued by particular dates.

19. The 2023 regulations are made under ss. 4 and 262 of the 2000 Act. Section 4 provides:

“Exempted development.

4.—(1) The following shall be exempted developments for the purposes of this Act—

(a) development consisting of the use of any land for the purpose of agriculture and

development consisting of the use for that purpose of any building occupied together with

land so used;

(aa) development by a local authority in its functional area (other than, in the case of a local

authority that is a coastal planning authority, its nearshore area);

(ab) development by a coastal planning authority that—

(i) owns the maritime site on which the development is proposed to be situated, or

(ii) is the holder of a maritime area consent granted for the occupation of a maritime

site for the purposes of the proposed development,

in its nearshore area;

(ab) development consisting of the carrying out of relevant works or related activities over

principal burial land, ancillary burial land or ancillary land within the meaning of the

Institutional Burials Act 2022;

(e) development consisting of the carrying out by a local authority of any works required for

the construction of a new road or the maintenance or improvement of a road;

(f) development carried out on behalf of, or jointly or in partnership with, a local authority,

pursuant to a contract entered into by the local authority concerned, whether in its capacity

as a planning authority or in any other capacity;

(fa) development to which section 179A applies;

(g) development consisting of the carrying out by any local authority or statutory undertaker

of any works for the purpose of inspecting, repairing, renewing, altering or removing any

sewers, mains, pipes, cables, overhead wires, or other apparatus, including the excavation

of any street or other land for that purpose;

(h) development consisting of the carrying out of works for the maintenance, improvement

or other alteration of any structure, being works which affect only the interior of the structure

or which do not materially affect the external appearance of the structure so as to render

the appearance inconsistent with the character of the structure or of neighbouring

structures;

(i) development consisting of the thinning, felling or replanting of trees, forests or

woodlands or works ancillary to that development, but not including the replacement

of broadleaf high forest by conifer species;

(ia) development (other than development consisting of the provision of access to a

national road within the meaning of the Roads Act 1993) that consists of—

(I) the construction, maintenance or improvement of a road (other than a

public road) that serves a forest or woodland, or

(II) works ancillary to such construction, maintenance or improvement;

(j) development consisting of the use of any structure or other land within the curtilage of a

house for any purpose incidental to the enjoyment of the house as such;

(k) development consisting of the use of land for the purposes of a casual trading area

(within the meaning of the Casual Trading Act, 1995);

(l) development consisting of the carrying out of any of the works referred to in the

Land Reclamation Act, 1949, not being works comprised in the fencing or enclosure

of land which has been open to or used by the public within the ten years preceding

the date on which the works are commenced or works consisting of land reclamation

or reclamation of estuarine marsh land and of callows, referred to in section 2 of

that Act.

(1A) Subject to subsection (1B), the following classes of development shall also be exempted

development for the purposes of this Act if carried out wholly in the maritime area:

(a) development for the purposes of any survey for archaeological purposes;

(b) development for the purposes, or consisting, of—

(i) the exploration for petroleum, within the meaning of Part II of the Petroleum and

Other Minerals Development Act 1960, in accordance with a licence under section 8,

9 or 19 of that Act or a lease under section 13 of that Act,

(ii) the working, within such meaning, of such petroleum, in accordance with such

lease or licence, or

(iii) the restoration of the area in which such exploration or working has taken place;

(c) development consisting, or for the purposes, of the construction or operation, in

accordance with a consent under subsection (1) of section 40 of the Gas Act 1976, of an

upstream pipeline,

(d) development for the purposes, or consisting, of dumping within the meaning of the

Dumping At Sea Act 1996;

(e) development authorised under section 638 of the Merchant Shipping Act 1894 or section

3 of the Merchant Shipping (Commissioners of Irish Lights) Act 1997 by the Commissioners

of Irish Lights for the purposes, or consisting, of the placement of aids to navigation;

(f) activities that are the subject of, or require, a licence under Part 5 of the Maritime Area

Planning Act 2021;

(g) development consisting of the use of any land or maritime site for the purposes of—

(i) the harvesting of shellfish, or

(ii) activities relating to fishing or aquaculture.

(1B) Development referred to in paragraph (a), (d), (e) or (g) of subsection (1A) shall not

be exempted development if an environmental impact assessment of the development is

required.

(1C) Development referred to in paragraph (a), (d), (e) or (g) of subsection (1A) shall not

be exempted development if an appropriate assessment of the development is required.

(2) (a) The Minister may by regulations provide for any class of development to be exempted

development for the purposes of this Act where he or she is of the opinion that—

(i) by reason of the size, nature or limited effect on its surroundings, of development

belonging to that class, the carrying out of such development would not offend

against principles of proper planning and sustainable development, or

(ii) the development is authorised, or is required to be authorised, by or under any

enactment (whether the authorisation takes the form of the grant of a licence,

consent, approval or any other type of authorisation) where the enactment

concerned requires there to be consultation (howsoever described) with members

of the public in relation to the proposed development prior to the granting of the

authorisation (howsoever described).

(b) Regulations under paragraph (a) may be subject to conditions and be of general

application or apply to such area or place as may be specified in the regulations.

(c) Regulations under this subsection may, in particular and without prejudice to the

generality of paragraph (a), provide, in the case of structures or other land used for a

purpose of any specified class, for the use thereof for any other purpose being exempted

development for the purposes of this Act.

(3) A reference in this Act to exempted development shall be construed as a reference to

development which is—

(a) any of the developments specified in subsection (1) or (1A), or

(b) development which, having regard to any regulations under subsection (2), is exempted

development for the purposes of this Act.

(4) Notwithstanding paragraphs (a), (i), (ia) and (l) of subsection (1) and any regulations

under subsection (2), development shall not be exempted development if an environmental

impact assessment or an appropriate assessment of the development is required.

(4A) Notwithstanding subsection (4), the Minister may make regulations prescribing

development or any class of development that is—

(a) authorised, or required to be authorised by or under any statute (other than this Act)

whether by means of a licence, consent, approval or otherwise, and

(b) as respects which an environmental impact assessment or an appropriate assessment is

required,

to be exempted development.

(5) Before making regulations under this section, the Minister shall consult with any other

State authority where he or she or that other State authority considers that any such

regulation relates to the functions of that State authority.”

20. Section 262 provides:

“Regulations generally.

262.—(1) The Minister may make regulations for prescribing any matter referred to in this

Act as prescribed or to be prescribed, or in relation to any matter referred to in this Act as

the subject of regulations.

(2) Regulations under this Act may contain such incidental, supplemental and consequential

provisions as appear to the Minister to be necessary or expedient.

(3) Before making any regulations under this Act, the Minister shall consult with any relevant

State authority where the regulations relate to the functions of that State authority.

(4) Where regulations are proposed to be made under section 4(2), 19(3), 25(5), 100(1)(b),

(c) or (d), 126(4), 126A(2), 176, 179(1), 181(1)(a), 221(4), 230(1) or 246, a draft of the

regulations shall be laid before both Houses of the Oireachtas and the regulations shall not

be made unless a resolution approving the draft has been passed by each such House.

(5) Every regulation made under this Act (other than a regulation referred to in subsection

(4)) shall be laid before each House of the Oireachtas as soon as may be after it is made

and, if a resolution annulling the regulation is passed by either such House within the next

21 days on which that House has sat after the regulation is laid before it, the regulation shall

be annulled accordingly but without prejudice to the validity of anything previously done

thereunder.”

21. The text of the 2023 regulations is as follows:

“S.I. No. 376/2023 - Planning and Development (Exempted Development) (No. 4)

Regulations 2023

Notice of the making of this Statutory Instrument was published in

‘Iris Oifigiúil’ of 21st July, 2023.

WHEREAS I, DARRAGH O’BRIEN, Minister for Housing, Local Government and Heritage, am

of the opinion that development to which the following regulations apply would not offend

against principles of proper planning and sustainable development by reason of the nature

and limited effect of development belonging to that class on its surroundings;

AND WHEREAS a draft of the following regulations has been laid before each House of the

Oireachtas and a resolution approving that draft has been passed by each such House;

NOW I, DARRAGH O’BRIEN, Minister for Housing, Local Government and Heritage, in

exercise of the powers conferred on me by sections 4 (2) and 262 of the Planning and

Development Act 2000 (No. 30 of 2000) (as adapted by the Housing, Planning and Local

Government (Alteration of Name of Department and Title of Minister) Order 2020 ( S.I. No.

408 of 2020 )), hereby make the following regulations:

Citation and construction

1. (1) These Regulations may be cited as the Planning and Development (Exempted

Development) (No. 4) Regulations 2023.

(2) These Regulations shall be included in the collective citation Planning and Development

Regulations 2001 to 2023.

Amendment of Part 1 of Schedule 2 to Planning and Development Regulations 2001

2. Part 1 of Schedule 2 to the Planning and Development Regulations 2001 ( S.I. No. 600 of

2001 ) (as amended by Regulation 2 of the Planning and Development (Exempted

Development) (No. 4) Regulations 2022 ( S.I. No. 605 of 2022 )) is amended by the

substitution for the matter set out at CLASS 20F the following:

‘CLASS 20F

Temporary use by or on behalf of the Minister for Children, Equality, Disability, Integration

and Youth to accommodate or support displaced persons or persons seeking international

protection of any structure or part of a structure used as a school, college, university,

training centre, social centre, community centre, non-residential club, art gallery, museum,

library, reading room, sports club or stadium, gymnasium, hotel, convention centre,

conference centre, shop, office, Defence Forces barracks, light industrial building, airport

operational building, wholesale warehouse or repository, local authority administrative

office, play centre, medical and other health and social care accommodation, event and

exhibition space or any structure or part of structure normally used for public worship or

religious instruction.

1. The temporary use shall only be for the purposes of accommodating displaced persons or

for the purposes of accommodating persons seeking international protection.

2. Subject to paragraph 4 of this class, the use for the purposes of accommodating displaced

persons shall be discontinued when the temporary protection introduced by the Council

Implementing Decision (EU) 2022/382 of 4 March 20221 comes to an end in accordance

with Article 6 of the Council Directive 2001/55/EC of 20 July 20012 .

3. The use for the purposes of accommodating persons seeking international protection shall

be discontinued not later than 31 December 2028.

4. Where the obligation to provide temporary protection is discontinued in accordance with

paragraph 2 of this class, on a date that is earlier than 31 December 2028, the temporary

use of any structure which has been used for the accommodation of displaced persons shall

continue for the purposes of accommodating persons seeking international protection in

accordance with paragraph 3 of this class.

5. The relevant local authority must be notified of locations where change of use is taking

place prior the commencement of development.

6. ‘displaced persons’, for the purpose of this class, means persons to whom temporary

protection applies in accordance with Article 2 of Council Implementing Decision (EU)

2022/382 of 4 March 2022.

7. ‘international protection’, for the purpose of this class, has the meaning given to it in

section 2 (1) of the International Protection Act 2015 (No. 66 of 2015).

8. ‘temporary protection’, for the purpose of this class, has the meaning given to it in Article

2 of Council Directive 2001/55/EC of 20 July 2001.’

GIVEN under my Official Seal,

19 July, 2023.

DARRAGH O’BRIEN,

Minister of Housing, Local Government and Heritage.

1 OJ No. L 71, 04.03.2022, p. 1.

2 OJ No. L 212, 07.08.2001, p. 12.7”

Relief sought in statement of grounds

22. The reliefs sought in the statement of grounds are as follows:

“(1) Injunction - prevent the use of S.I. No. 376/2023 - Planning and Development

(Exempted Development) (No. 4) Regulations 2023.

(2) Injunction - prevent the movement of displaced persons or persons seeking

international protection throughout the state into accommodation that is not within the scope

of the provisions of the Planning and Development Act 2000.

(3) Injunction - prevent the movement of displaced persons or persons seeking

international protection throughout the state into accommodation that is not within the scope

of the provisions of the Constitution of Ireland.

(4) Prohibition - prevent action being taken to accommodate any displaced persons or

persons seeking international protection outside the provisions of the Planning and

Development Act 2000.

(5) Prohibition - prevent action being taken to accommodate any displaced persons or

persons seeking international protection outside the provisions of the Constitution of Ireland.

(6) Declaration - A declaration that any action being taken to accommodate any

displaced persons or persons seeking international protection must adhere to the provisions

of the Planning and Development Act 2000.

(7) Declaration - A declaration that any action being taken to accommodate any

displaced persons or persons seeking international protection must adhere to the provisions

of the Constitution of Ireland.”

Applicant’s grounds in statement of grounds

23. The grounds for relief in the statement of grounds are as follows:

“(e) Grounds upon which such relief is sought:

1. I hereby give notice to the court that I will now proceed to exhibit the detailed

grounds upon which the requested injunctive reliefs, prohibitions, and declarations are

sought.

2. I say that I have put a consolidated exhibit together with various documents which

I have marked with the letters ‘PMG1’

3. I will now enter into evidence section S.I. No. 376/2023 - Planning and Development

(Exempted Development) (No. 4) Regulations 2023. refer to PMG 1, page 001-006

4. I will now enter into evidence Section 10 of the Planning and Development Act 2000.

refer to PMG 1, Page 007-008

S.I. No. 376/2023 - Planning and Development (Exempted Development) (No. 4)

Regulations 2023 contravenes Section 10 of the Planning and Development Act 2000 in the

following ways:

5. Legal Framework: Section 10 of the Planning and Development Act 2000 (2000 Act)

mandates that development plans must include objectives for the provision or facilitation of

community services, such as schools, childcare facilities, and other essential amenities to

support the local population.

6. S.I. No. 376/2023 Exemptions: The statutory instrument allows for the temporary

use of certain structures to accommodate displaced persons or individuals seeking

international protection. While this serves a critical humanitarian purpose, the regulations

do not explicitly address the requirement for proper planning of essential community

infrastructure.

7. Community Services Obligations: The 2000 Act emphasizes the importance of

integrating community services into development plans to ensure sustainable and socially-

integrated planning. By not requiring provisions for essential services in the context of

accommodating displaced persons, the regulations overlook the long-term impact on the

local community.

8. Impact on Local Infrastructure: The influx of displaced persons or asylum seekers

necessitates considerations beyond temporary accommodation. Adequate provision of

schools, healthcare facilities, childcare services, and other amenities is crucial to support

both the newcomers and the existing community.

9. Planning Authority Oversight: While the regulations mandate notification to the local

authority, this does not sufficiently address the comprehensive planning needed to ensure

the seamless integration of temporary accommodation with essential community services.

The absence of specific requirements for community infrastructure planning raises concerns

about the adequacy of oversight.

10. Sustainable Development Goals: Sustainable development principles encompass

social, economic, and environmental considerations. Neglecting the planning for essential

community services in temporary accommodation arrangements will hinder the achievement

of sustainable development goals and compromise the well-being of both the newcomers

and the host community.

11. Long-Term Implications: While the exemptions in S.I. No. 376/2023 are temporary

in nature, the lack of explicit provisions for community services planning raises questions

about the long-term impact on the local area. Failure to address these aspects during the

temporary use period will lead to challenges in transitioning or integrating the facilities into

the community post-exemption.

12. Overall Compliance: In light of the Act's emphasis on community service provision

within development plans, the absence of specific requirements in the regulations for

accommodating displaced persons is a deviation from the legislative intent of ensuring

comprehensive and sustainable development that meets the needs of all residents.

13. Conclusion: The temporary exemptions provided by S.I. No. 376/2023, while serving

an important humanitarian purpose, fall short of the requirements set forth in Section 10 of

the Planning and Development Act 2000 regarding community services provision.

Addressing this gap is essential to ensure holistic and sustainable planning that considers

the well-being of both the incoming population and the existing community.

14. I will now enter into evidence Section 20 of the Planning and Development Act 2000.

Refer to PMG 1, page 009-010

S.I. No. 376/2023 - Planning and Development (Exempted Development) (No. 4)

Regulations 2023 contravenes Section 20 of the Planning and Development Act 2000 in the

following ways:

15. Public Consultation Requirement: Section 20(1) of the Act mandates that the

planning authority must engage in comprehensive public consultation before preparing,

amending, or revoking a local area plan. This consultation process is crucial for gathering

input from local residents, public sector agencies, non-governmental organizations,

community groups, and commercial interests within the area.

16. Consultation with Údaras na Gaeltachta: Section 20(2) specifically requires

consultation with Údaras na Gaeltachta for local area plans that include Gaeltacht areas.

This consultation ensures that the unique cultural and linguistic considerations of Gaeltacht

areas are taken into account in the planning process.

17. Notification and Publication Requirements: Section 20(3) outlines the specific steps

that the planning authority must follow, including sending notices of proposed local area

plans to the Board and prescribed authorities, publishing notices in newspapers, and

providing opportunities for public inspection and submission of feedback. These

requirements are designed to ensure transparency and public participation in the planning

process.

18. Requirement to Send Local Area Plan: Section 20(5) mandates that the planning

authority must send a copy of any local area plan to bodies consulted during the planning

process, the Board, and any prescribed bodies. This step ensures that all relevant

stakeholders have access to the final plan and are informed of the decisions made.

19. Contravention by S.I. No. 376/2023: The S.I. No. 376/2023 regulations do not align

with the rigorous consultation and notification requirements set out in Section 20 of the Act.

The regulations lack explicit provisions for public consultation, consultation with Udaras na

Gaeltachta, and the detailed notification and publication procedures outlined in the Act.

20. Impact on Stakeholder Engagement: The absence of robust consultation processes

in the regulations limit the opportunities for community input, leading to decisions that do

not fully reflect the needs and preferences of local residents, organizations, and businesses.

This lack of engagement undermines the principles of transparency, inclusivity, and

accountability that underpin effective planning processes.

21. Legal Compliance and Good Governance: By not adhering to the consultation

requirements specified in Section 20 of the Planning and Development Act 2000, the S.I.

No. 376/2023 regulations are at risk of contravening the legal framework established to

ensure meaningful stakeholder engagement and participatory decision-making in the local

area planning process.

22. Conclusion: The S.I. No. 376/2023 regulations fall short of the comprehensive

consultation, notification, and stakeholder engagement standards set forth in Section 20 of

the Planning and Development Act 2000. Addressing these deficiencies is essential to

uphold the principles of transparency, inclusivity, and effective governance in the local area

planning process.

23. I will now enter into evidence Article 45 - Directive Principles of Social Policy in the

Irish Constitution. ref er to PMG 1, page O11

S.I. No. 376/2023 - Planning and Development (Exempted Development) (No. 4)

Regulations 2023 is repugnant to several aspects of Article 45 - Directive Principles of Social

Policy in the Irish Constitution:

24. Article 45.1 establishes that the State shall strive to promote the welfare of the

whole people by securing a social order based on justice and charity. The S.I. No. 376/2023

regulations, by exempting temporary accommodation for displaced persons or asylum

seekers from normal planning requirements, fails to adequately consider the long-term

welfare and integration of these vulnerable groups within the broader community.

25. Article 45.2(i) directs the State to ensure citizens have an adequate means of

livelihood through their occupations. The regulations' lack of explicit provisions for

integrating community services and economic opportunities for the affected population is

undermining this principle. By not requiring proper planning for essential infrastructure like

schools, childcare, and job opportunities, the regulations will hinder the ability of displaced

persons or asylum seekers to achieve reasonable provision for their domestic needs.

26. Article 45.2(ii) and (iii) call for the distribution of material resources and control of

essential commodities to best serve the common good, without concentration in the hands

of a few. The exemptions in the regulations, by not mandating comprehensive community

consultation and planning are neglecting these principles of equitable distribution and

causing the concentration of resources.

27. Article 45.2(iv) states that the constant and predominant aim in the control of credit

shall be the welfare of the people as a whole. The regulations' lack of integration with local

authority planning and community needs assessments fail to ensure that the temporary

accommodation arrangements are aligned with this directive to prioritize the overall public

welfare.

28. Article 45.4(1) pledges the State to safeguard with especial care the economic

interests of the weaker sections of the community and provide support where necessary.

The gaps in community service provision and economic integration under the regulations

contradict this directive to protect the vulnerable.

29. Article 45.4(2) requires the State to ensure the strength, health, and age of workers

are not abused, and that citizens are not forced by economic necessity into unsuitable

occupations. The regulations' failure to adequately consider the long-term impacts on the

local community, including the strain on public services and infrastructure is neglecting these

principles of worker protection and preventing economic exploitation.

30. In summary, the S.I. No. 376/2023 regulations, by exempting temporary

accommodation uses from normal planning requirements and lacking explicit provisions for

comprehensive community consultation, service integration, and economic support

contravene several of the Directive Principles of Social Policy outlined in Article 45 of the

Irish Constitution. The gaps in addressing the welfare, livelihood, resource distribution, and

protection of vulnerable groups under the regulations is undermining the State's

constitutional obligations to promote social justice and the common good.

31. I will now enter into evidence Article 40 - Fundamental Rights and Personal Rights

in the Irish Constitution. refer to PMG 1, page 012-013

S.I. No. 376/2023 - Planning and Development (Exempted Development) (No. 4)

Regulations 2023 is repugnant to several aspects of the Fundamental Rights and Personal

Rights outlined in Article 40 of the Irish Constitution:

32. Article 40.3.1° establishes the State's guarantee to respect, defend, and vindicate

the personal rights of citizens, particularly protecting life, person, good name, and property

rights. The 5.1. No. 376/2023 regulations, by exempting temporary accommodation for

displaced persons or asylum seekers from normal planning requirements, fails to adequately

consider the long-term impact on the personal rights and wellbeing of both the affected

population and the local community.

33. The lack of explicit provisions in the regulations for ensuring the provision of

essential community services and infrastructure, such as healthcare, education, and social

support is a failure to properly defend and vindicate the personal rights of the displaced

persons or asylum seekers. Without access to these basic services, their right to an

adequate standard of living and personal development is compromised.

34. Article 40.4.1° guarantees that no citizen shall be deprived of personal liberty save

in accordance with law. The gaps in community service provision and integration will

indirectly impact the personal liberty and rights of both the displaced persons/ asylum

seekers and the local community. The inability to access essential services or participate

fully in the community is an indirect deprivation of personal liberty.

35. Article 40.5 enshrines the inviolability of the dwelling of every citizen, which shall

not be forcibly entered save in accordance with law. The temporary accommodation

arrangements enabled by the regulations may raise concerns about the potential for

intrusion into the private dwellings of citizens, even if indirectly. The lack of clear safeguards

and consultation processes in the regulations are failing to adequately protect this

fundamental right to the inviolability of the home.

36. Article 40.6.1 ° guarantees the State's protection of the rights of citizens to express

their convictions and opinions freely, to assemble peaceably, and to form associations and

unions, subject to regulation in the public interest. The lack of comprehensive public

consultation and community engagement requirements in the 5.1. No. 376/2023 regulations

is undermining these personal rights and liberties, even if the regulations are intended to

serve a public interest.

37. The exemptions provided by the regulations, without adequate provisions for

community integration and participation are failing to strike a proper balance between the

public interest and the personal rights and freedoms of both the affected population and the

local community. This is a contravention of the State's duty to respect, defend, and vindicate

the fundamental rights enshrined in Article 40.

38. In conclusion, the 5.1. No. 376/2023 regulations, through their exemptions from

normal planning requirements and gaps in addressing community needs and personal rights

contravene several key aspects of Article 40 - Fundamental Rights, Personal Rights in the

Irish Constitution. The lack of comprehensive safeguards and integration measures

undermine the State's obligations to protect the life, liberty, and personal rights of all

citizens.

39. I will now enter into evidence Article 15 - The National Parliament, Constitution and

Powers in the Irish Constitution. refer to PMG 1, page 014-015

S.I. No. 376/2023 - Planning and Development (Exempted Development) (No. 4)

Regulations 2023 directly contravenes the provisions of Article 15 - The National Parliament,

Constitution and Powers in the Irish Constitution:

40. Article 15.2.1° states that the sole and exclusive power of making laws for the State

is vested in the Oireachtas. However, the S.I. No. 376/2023 regulations were not enacted

directly by the Oireachtas, but rather by the Minister for Housing, Local Government and

Heritage under the powers conferred by the Planning and Development Act 2000. The

regulations were not made through the exclusive legislative process of the Oireachtas as

mandated by Article 15.2.1°, but rather through a delegated legislative power.

41. By allowing the executive branch, in the form of the Minister, to enact regulations

that exempt certain developments from normal planning requirements, the 5.1. No.

376/2023 regulations are undermining the sole and exclusive law-making authority of the

Oireachtas.

42. The Oireachtas is constitutionally vested with the power to make laws for the State.

The regulations, by providing exemptions without direct Oireachtas involvement are

contravening this core constitutional principle.

43. Article 15.2.2° does allow for the creation or recognition of subordinate legislatures.

The regulations are a unilateral executive action, rather than a product of the Oireachtas'

legislative process.

44. The lack of direct Oireachtas involvement in the enactment of the S.I. No. 376/2023

regulations, combined with the broad exemptions they provide directly contravene the

exclusive law-making powers of the Oireachtas as enshrined in Article 15.2.1° of the

Constitution.

45. In conclusion, the S.I. No. 376/2023 regulations, by being enacted by the executive

branch rather than the Oireachtas, and by providing broad exemptions from normal planning

requirements directly contravene the sole and exclusive law-making authority of the

Oireachtas as outlined in Article 15 of the Irish Constitution.

46. Final conclusion, the S.I. No. 376/2023 regulations, through their exemptions from

normal planning requirements and gaps in addressing community needs and personal rights

contravene various provisions of the Irish Constitution, including the fundamental rights and

personal liberties outlined in Article 40, the directive principles of social policy in Article 45,

and the community service and public consultation requirements of the Planning and

Development Act 2000.

47. I pray this Honourable Court grant the requested injunctive reliefs, prohibitions, and

declarations sought-after orders, in my EX PARTE MOTION DOCKET.”

Relief sought in motion

24. The reliefs sought in the notice of motion are as follows:

“1. An Order pursuant to the inherent jurisdiction of this Honourable Court setting aside

the Order of this Honourable Court made on 17 June 2024 and perfected on 18 June 2024

granting the Applicant leave to apply for judicial review.

2. Further or in the alternative, an Order pursuant to the inherent jurisdiction of this

Honourable Court and/or pursuant to O. 19, r. 28 of the Rules of the Superior Courts striking

out the Statement required to ground the application for judicial review herein dated 29 April

2024 as disclosing no reasonable cause of action against the Respondent and being frivolous,

vexatious and bound to fail.

3. Such further or other Order as this Honourable Court shall deem fit; and

4. Costs.”

The objections in principle to the motion

25. The applicant launches a number of overall objections in principle to the motion. But

ultimately these lack sufficient merit:

(i) The fact that the leave order was lawfully made in the first place does not mean it

can’t be set aside.

(ii) It is not the law that a leave order can only be set aside in exceptional circumstances.

Doing so on grounds of non-disclosure would be exceptional, but on grounds such

as time, standing, inadequate pleading or lack of arguability is routine (although one

needs to add on a pragmatic note that there is a strong school of thought (a school

of which I happen to be a member) that opposing parties would normally be better

advised to keep their powder dry and reserve their position, in order to be able to

launch an all-out defence at a single hearing). The general rule is that any ex parte

application can be set aside on the application of any other party that was not heard

in the first instance. Setting aside leave is only a special example of that general

rule, and there is no logical reason why the test should be significantly higher in

such a case, aside from the exceptional case of non-disclosure which is not

something to be raised on weak grounds.

(iii) As regards delay by the respondent, there is no undue, still less disqualifying, delay.

Opposition papers have yet to be filed.

(iv) Insofar as the applicant is acting in good faith (which I accept with the qualification

that that does not entitle him to accuse other people of fraud, perjury and criminal

offences and the like merely for, in effect, positing a legal position that he disagrees

with) and insofar as he raises issues of public importance (which I do accept), that

doesn’t get an applicant very far. Compliance with O. 84 in all respects is required.

(v) The complaints that various people have committed criminal offences misunderstand

criminal law.

(vi) The allegation that the strike-out motion is inadequately reasoned falls flat. A court

in such a situation can readily evaluate the pleadings and the existence or otherwise

of arguable grounds.

(vii) The demand for a jury trial is a misconception because that procedure does not apply

to judicial review.

(viii) The miscellany of other points adds nothing decisive to the mix.

26. We will turn then to the specific issues raised by the respondent.

Whether the grounds are arguable

27. The position in relation to the applicant’s grounds is as follows:

(i) Grounds 1 to 3 are not legal grounds as such.

(ii) Grounds 4 to 13, which are related, allege in substance breach of either s. 10 of the

2000 Act or of the requirements of proper planning and sustainable development.

Insofar as s. 10 is concerned, that does not apply to exempted development

regulations. It relates to the making of plans and impacts downstream on

developments for which permission is required. The putting in place of exempted

developments is not expressly constrained by s. 10. However s. 10 may not be

wholly irrelevant in assessing the reasonableness of a ministerial opinion of limited

impact for exempted development, but is not a ground of challenge as such. The

concept of proper planning and sustainable development does apply to the making

of exempted development regulations, and I will deal with that separately. I note

that Ground 10 relates to sustainable development goals (which on its ordinary

meaning relates to UN goals adopted in 2015: https://sdgs.un.org/goals). However

these are not justiciable on any basis identified by the applicant so would be

persuasive only in terms of the meaning of the term ”sustainable development”.

(iii) Grounds 14 to 22 relate to the lack of consultation procedures. However those

procedures don’t apply to exempted development regulations, and aren’t such as to

make regulations ultra vires for not going through comparable procedures. This

aspect is misconceived as pleaded. But again, while not a ground of challenge in

themselves, the provisions of the Act related to the framework for permissions may

be relevant to the reasonableness of a decision that impacts of an exemption are

limited.

(iv) Grounds 23 to 30 complain about breach of Article 45, which is not justiciable as a

ground of challenge to the validity of an enactment. So this is unstateable.

(v) Grounds 31 to 38 claim a breach of Article 40 and a breach of equality.

Unfortunately, in the sense presented, that is a political complaint. Allowing a

change of use of some properties to provide accommodation to one person rather

than another may be perceived as unequal by persons outside the category

concerned, but who should be accommodated where is something that requires

policy choices and political decisions that are far outside the competence of the

judicial branch of government. Furthermore, a case based on human rights

generally has to be brought by the rights-holder. In the context here, this complaint

blends into ius tertii.

(vi) Grounds 39 to 45 allege excessive delegation in breach of Article 15 of the

Constitution. But the arguments addressed in Conway v. An Bord Pleanála [2024]

IESC 34 also apply here mutatis mutandis – delegation to make exempted

development regulations on the sort of conditions in, and within the framework of,

the 2000 Act, is not an abdication of legislative power or otherwise unconstitutional.

No arguable basis to conclude otherwise has been pleaded. Insofar as points were

made in argument that no quorum was present in the Houses when the resolutions

were passed, I don’t have any reason to doubt the applicant’s belief that fewer

members than the quorum were present, and I will assume that one can see this on

Oireachtas TV or the relevant webcast on the Oireachtas website, but that happens

fairly often. The complaint misunderstands the nature of the quorum rule. Business

is not invalid in the absence of a quorum. Rather such absence permits any member

to “call a quorum”. If a quorum is not present at that time, members are summoned

by bells, and if the quorum remains absent thereafter then the House adjourns. But

if nobody calls a quorum in the first place, business can proceed with fewer

members. In any event that is an indoor management rule, not a ground to

invalidate legislation. Separately the fact that the draft regulations state that they

have been passed is a misreading. The contents of the draft are conditioned by the

nature of the document as itself being a draft. So when a draft states that it has

been passed, that is a draft statement, not an assertion of an incorrect position. The

miscellany of other unpleaded but submitted points don’t advance the position:

Article 6 of the Constitution is a general principle, not a basis for invalidating laws

of this nature; the application to strike out the leave order is a recourse to Articles

34 and 35 of the Constitution not a breach of those provisions; rights under Article

40.3 can only be asserted by rights-holders and only on specific facts.

(vii) Ground 46 is repetitive.

(viii) Ground 47 is not a legal ground as such.

28. Apart from the issue of the reasonableness of the conclusion of limited impact in terms of

the requirements of proper planning and sustainable development, which may or may not have been

formally pleaded but doesn’t seem to have been argued or decided in those terms in McGreal I,

going by the judgment, an analysis that the other grounds are not arguable is consistent with that

judgment.

The regulations and the requirement of proper planning and sustainable development

29. The legislation requires the Minister to be:

“of the opinion that—

(i) by reason of the size, nature or limited effect on its surroundings, of development

belonging to that class, the carrying out of such development would not offend against

principles of proper planning and sustainable development, …”

30. The basic thrust of the applicant’s complaints under the heading of proper planning and

sustainable development is that the Minister’s conclusion of no offending against those principles is

incorrect. Unfortunately, one can’t simply plead that a decision-maker’s evaluative conclusions are

incorrect. One has to either identify an issue of law or non-evaluative fact, or plead that such

conclusions are irrational or disproportionate.

31. The issue should have been put as a complaint that the ministerial conclusion recited in the

regulations was irrational having regard to specified facts deposed to as to significant impacts of

such developments which warranted development control in the interests of proper planning and

sustainable development. How far a court can go in rewriting the claims of a litigant in person to

make them more legally palatable is a potentially delicate matter.

32. This sort of question was basically the issue in O’Doherty and Waters v. Minister for Health

[2022] IESC 32, [2023] 2 I.R. 488, [2022] 1 I.L.R.M. 421 per O’Donnell C.J. at para. 29:

“The respondents agreed that G. v. DPP is the appropriate threshold to apply in this case

but disagreed with the appellants’ claim that they have surmounted it. They argued that

the threshold is not whether an arguable case could be made that a measure is unlawful,

but whether, on the facts and pleadings of these proceedings, an arguable case has, in fact,

been made. It is the respondents’ contention that this threshold has not been met.”

33. O’Donnell C.J. referred to extensive additional authorities and indeed extensive factual

matters, drawn from public domain material it would appear, relied on by Hogan J. in a dissenting

judgment that would have granted leave, and said at para. 96:

“However, the sheer breadth and novelty of the material relied on in the judgment point to

the fact that the matter focused upon and discussed at length in the judgment is certainly

radically, and in my view, fundamentally, different to the case made by the appellants. This

raises a difficult question as to the extent to which it is permissible for a court considering

the grant of leave to seek judicial review, or indeed an appeal from a refusal to grant leave,

to remould or refashion the claim. Put shortly, given the short time limits in judicial review,

the constraints imposed by the doctrine of res judicata, and the rule in Henderson v.

Henderson (1843) All E.R. Rep. 378, I do not consider that, even allowing for the importance

of clarity and precision in pleadings as set out in O.84, r.20(3) that an applicant’s case must

be considered solely on the precise formulation of the case contained in the pleadings: some

latitude may be allowed. However, I consider that the length to which it is necessary to go

to reach the position set out in the judgment of Hogan J. is well beyond any permissible

adjustment of the case being advanced by the applicants and has only the most tenuous

connection to it.”

34. Indeed he went on to characterise the reformulation in the dissent as follows:

“Here the approach advocated by Hogan J. would, at least in my view, involve the grant of

leave for a challenge to regulation which were not challenged by the applicants, or even in

existence when these proceedings were commenced, and by reference to evidence which

has not been adduced in respect of the course of the pandemic and the development of

scientific knowledge in relation to it and by reference to arguments not advanced by the

applicant. Indeed, it is a further objection to this course, that it would appear to foist upon

the applicants an argument not only not made by them, but which, in so much as it depends

upon an acceptance that general restrictions were justified by the scientific evidence at least

at the outset of the pandemic, runs counter to the arguments which the applicants did make.

I would not grant leave to seek judicial review on the basis suggested by Hogan J.”

35. He referred in a number of places to the point (the right to protest) on which the dissent

would have granted leave as not being the “focus” of the applicant’s complaint, and said at para.

114:

“However, I do not agree that it would now be permissible for the Court to attempt the

radical surgery necessary to convert these proceedings into the almost entirely different

claim envisaged by Hogan J.”

36. One point I do need to make is that the test for amendment is the same for lay litigants and

represented litigants – the interests of justice judged by reference to arguability to the appropriate

threshold, explanation and lack of irremediable prejudice. The issue is not the test for amendment

– well canvassed elsewhere. But the question is how far the court should go to itself identify the

appropriate amendment in the case of an unrepresented litigant. In doing so I prefer not to think

in terms of assisting a lay litigant but rather trying to even the scales to avoid a situation where a

party is avoidably prejudiced due only to her lack of legal knowledge, particularly procedural

knowledge.

37. So one can envisage a spectrum of situations where the court might be asked to reformulate

the claim when granting leave (or later, such as in a discharge of leave application):

(i) a point is included in some form in the material put before the court by the litigant

and is the “focus” of the argument but its “precise formulation” as a pleaded ground

is lacking or inadequate;

(ii) a point is included in some form in the material put before the court by the litigant

although not the focus of the argument made, but any reformulation of the formal

pleaded grounds would not be radical and would be a “permissible adjustment”;

(iii) a point is not the focus of the argument although it is included by a legally

inadequate reference in the material put before the court by the litigant, but any

reformulation would amount to “radical surgery”; or

(iv) a point is not only not included and not the focus, but is “counter” to points actually

made by the applicant.

38. O’Doherty and Waters was a case coming in at levels (iii) and (iv) of the spectrum. While

to someone coming to those formulations academically might think that the distinction between

permissible adjustment and radical surgery is opaque if not circular, that is a misconception. If

O’Donnell C.J. would forgive me for respectfully saying so, those are elegant formulations which will

prompt an instinctive reaction in most lawyers as to where in the spectrum any given matter would

fall. Written language is not just a replaceable form of symbols equivalent to mathematics or logic

– it is also poetry that can capture fleeting feelings and fine distinctions and may illuminate more

penetratingly than wholly dispassionate abstractions.

39. I might recall here (by way of giving credit) that counsel for the National Transport Authority

in Kelly v. An Bord Pleanála [2024] IEHC 364 (Unreported, High Court, 19th June 2024)

characterised the concept of “permissible adjustment” in an analogous situation of a leave

application by a personal litigant with the equally poetic and useful phrase “benevolent redrafting”.

The adjustment is benevolent not just to the applicant but in the sense that it does not, unfairly to

opposing parties, expand the substantive scope of the applicant’s case beyond points that an

applicant has attempted to make on the material presented, even if not in her formal pleaded

grounds. Secondly it is redrafting in that such an approach tries to phrase such a point in legal

language and as a legal ground, and it is thus in substance an attempt to present the applicant’s

point in a better drafted manner, as opposed to re-writing and certainly not re-writing from scratch.

40. Applying that legal spectrum here, this is a classic case (i). The applicant pleaded that the

ministerial opinion was wrong – he should have pleaded that it was irrational. The point was included

in the applicant’s material in some form, was the focus of the proceedings, and the surgery required

is not radical. This point should not be ruled out at the leave stage (or at the setting aside of leave

stage), but the court could grant leave (or allow leave to stand) on a redrafted basis if other criteria

are satisfied and provided that there were sufficient factual averments to support the ground. That

isn’t the case unfortunately but the applicant could potentially revisit the issue in future proceedings.

41. The State’s argument was that this adjustment hadn’t been made at the leave stage and so

didn’t arise now. I think that’s unduly formalistic. If this was the only issue, rather than set aside

the leave on this point I would have allowed the applicant to amend the pleadings to make the

correct point. But there are other problems.

42. To summarise the import of O’Doherty and Waters under this heading, a court can

reformulate grounds and allow an unrepresented party to amend her pleadings in those terms on

the following conditions:

(i) the point as reformulated by the court is not counter to the applicant’s case;

(ii) the point is one actually being made by the applicant (including where it is accepted

by the applicant on considering any reformulation suggested by the court);

(iii) the point has a basis in the material and arguments actually put forward by the

applicant even if it has erroneously been omitted from the pleadings proper and

even if it is not the focus of such material and argument, provided that the following

condition in particular is met;

(iv) the reformulation of the pleadings to include the point is permissible adjustment and

not radical surgery; and

(v) the tests for amendment to include the point, properly formulated, in the pleadings

are otherwise met.

Whether the reliefs are arguable

43. One overarching point that needs to be made about reliefs is that the pleading of reliefs is a

lot less crucial than the pleading of grounds, because the court has power to grant unpleaded relief,

but only within the pleaded grounds: Concerned Residents of Treascon and Clondoolusk v. An Bord

Pleanála & Ors. [2024] IESC 28 (Unreported, Supreme Court, 4th July 2024) per Murray J.

44. That said however, there is no plausible basis for injunctive relief against the operation of

the regulations. Measures of general application (like enactments or measures such as development

plans) could only be stayed in truly exceptional circumstances, particularly where it appeared more

likely than not that the measure would ultimately be held to be invalid. We are nowhere near that

here. The idea for example that people challenging development plans could simply walk in at leave

stage and pick up an ex parte injunction against the plan is wholly improper, and doubly so if such

applicants fail to draw the court’s attention to the strident contrary authority. Any general measure

should only be stayed in extraordinary circumstances, and then only on notice to the Attorney

General or the public law entity that enacted the measure or both.

45. Prohibition is not the appropriate relief either. The correct relief (not pleaded) would have

been a declaration that the 2023 regulations are ultra vires. That problem isn’t in itself unfixable

and a redrafting of the reliefs would not be radical surgery in the circumstances.

Whether the applicant has named the appropriate parties

46. A challenge to an enactment or other measure of general application should name Ireland

and the Attorney General. These proceedings don’t do that. Furthermore the words “of Ireland” in

the Minister’s title are inappropriate. That’s understood in any domestic context.

47. Again the surgery involved would be minor rather than major. But unfortunately for the

applicant there is a more significant problem.

Whether the requirements of standing, the existence of a concrete dispute and the related

requirements of time have been satisfied

48. The problem under the heading of standing and the related problem of the abstract nature

of the challenge and of time is that an applicant can’t simply wander into court to challenge measures

of general application in isolation (a point made in McGreal I at para. 6).

49. As regards time specifically, a measure of general application (such as an Act, other

enactment like the regulations here, a policy statement or guideline) can be challenged from time

to time as applied to new persons and new situations. An Act passed in, say randomly, 1861, can

be challenged in, say, 1988 or 2024 or whenever it is applied to some new fact situation. But what

you can’t do is to wander into court and say maybe this Act you have just looked up is

unconstitutional. Indeed in oral submissions the applicant sought to phrase the time issue in terms

that were uncomfortably close to time running from when he became aware of the regulations. That

is not the correct approach. Rather, the challenge must be brought as ancillary to a specific

application of the enactment or other measure, being an application that is itself brought within

time. Such an application can be prospective (if there is a reasonable basis to anticipate the future

application of the measure) or after-the-event (where the measure has actually been relied on). But

if after-the-event, the challenge must be brought within whatever period is fixed for challenge to

the individual act of reliance on the measure. This is sometimes misunderstood by applicants who

like general challenges. If an applicant is out of time for a challenge to an individual decision, she

doesn’t have standing to challenge the enactment or measure in the abstract merely because there

was an unchallenged individual decision previously.

50. This is compatible with the Court of Appeal decision in Muldoon v. Minister for the

Environment and Local Government [2023] IECA 61 (Unreported, Court of Appeal, 16th March 2023)

per Costello J. at para. 127:

“The grounds for the application to challenge the 1978 Regulations, based upon the case

advanced, was when those regulations first impacted the individual appellant.”

51. The concept of “first impact[ing on] the individual applicant” is linked to “the case advanced”.

In other words, failure to challenge a law that say prevents an applicant from challenging discrete

development A does not prevent her from bringing a separate challenge to such law in the context

of some later and different development B. What such failure does prevent is a belated attempt to

challenge development A by a side-wind of later seeking to strike down the law in question in some

more abstract sense, outside of the original time limit. And even if the applicant succeeds in getting

the law invalidated in case B, that doesn’t invalidate the unchallenged decision A, and nor would an

analogous belated challenge in a criminal context open the prisons of the nation, or cause any other

sort of nightmare scenario that people often seem to resort to when the issue of invalid legislation

comes up for discussion.

52. At para. 121 Costello J. noted that:

“[I]n Mungovan [v. Clare County Council [2020] IESC 17] ... Charleton J. held that where

an individual was impacted by delegated legislation on a continuing basis they have standing

to sue for so long as they are so impacted.”

53. The point for present purposes is that you have to be impacted to sue. So you can’t wander

into court to challenge a general measure in the abstract and justify that by saying that you have

challenged it within eight weeks or three months of its adoption, as the case may be. The

requirements of time and standing are interrelated. A timely action without standing is as

impermissible as a standing-based action brought out of time – as long as we understand time in

the latter context as running from the acquisition of standing, and as continuing in the event of a

continuing impact, and not from the enactment of the measure.

54. Standing is the critical issue in a context such as the presently worded proceedings: see

Cahill v. Sutton [1980] I.R. 269 per Henchy J. at p. 282; Lancefort Ltd. v. An Bord Pleanála (No. 2)

[1998] IESC 14, [1999] 2 I.R. 270 per Keane J. at pp. 310 – 311; Mohan v. Ireland [2019] IESC

18, [2021] 1 I.R. 293 per O’Donnell J. at para. 11.

55. Situating a challenge to legislation in a practical and fact-specific context also allows the

court to assess standing based on the applicant’s involvement with the facts in question. If an

applicant avers that she would have, but for the exemption, made observations on a particular,

specific, planning application, then that would generally be enough to confer standing. But it also

allows the court to look at how the impugned measure impacts in practice.

56. There are many reasons for such rules but we can put most of them under the heading of

judicial restraint. Separation of powers requires that the courts, who have no policy-making

competence and who can’t fill gaps in legislation that their orders may create, need to step back

from invalidating general measures unless it is necessary to do so. It isn’t necessary to do so in the

abstract. O’Donnell C.J. emphasised these issues in clear terms in O’Doherty and Waters.

57. Applying this to the present case, while on balance the applicant has a potentially arguable

point as to the reasonableness of the factual premise of the regulations, a challenge based on that

must be in the context of specific facts insofar as they relate to the applicant. A generalised objection

to the legislation based on citizenship or commitment to democratic values isn’t sufficient to satisfy

the caselaw, contrary to what the applicant believes the law to be. Maybe in a different system one

could make a case for the law being that way, but we have to deal with things as they have been

laid down by appellate courts on many occasions. The application here is abstractly premised on

the latter type of general objection and lacks the necessary factual engagement to sustain a grant

of leave. The Roman law concept of actio popularis began as (and, to an extent, even in our system,

remains) a primarily criminal concept:

“But in general the matter was managed by permitting any citizen, quivis ex populo, to bring

an action against the wrongdoer asking for his punishment rather than for compensation.

The victim of the wrong was preferred as prosecutor, but if he did not come forward anyone

else might. And from this fact, what we call a criminal prosecution was called in Rome an

actio popularis or publicum iudicium.” (Max Radin, “A Glimpse of Roman Law”, The Classical

Journal, Vol. 45, No. 2 (Nov., 1949), pp. 71-79, https://www.jstor.org/stable/3293384, The

Johns Hopkins University Press)

58. Such a concept has never been that popular in the civil law sphere. There are exceptions of

course but they are rare. The present type of action is not one of them.

Costs

59. Costs were argued at the hearing and were not to be left over to post-judgment on the basis

of a provisional disposition, which would be the norm in other cases. Thus I can deal with costs

now.

60. The State sought costs if they won on the basis of being entirely successful. They relied on

the Legal Services Regulation Act 2015 (which of course expressly exempts environmental rules)

but argued that the Aarhus convention did not arise due to the lack of pleaded environmental

grounds. The State asked that if they lost, costs would be reserved.

61. The applicant asked for costs to cover stamp duty if he won, and said that if he lost he would

leave costs to the court to decide.

62. There are two decisive reasons why I would be inclined towards no order as to costs:

(i) First of all, the State were not wholly successful in the sense of the legislation, which

requires not only that you win the event but that you win all of your argued points.

I don’t accept that the applicant’s propositions are wholly unarguable, if one is to

allow for a little permissible redrafting and for the need for more factual fleshing-out

specific to the applicant and to a definite context. I did accept the State’s main point

– the abstract nature of the claim – but not all of their arguments in their entirety.

So s. 169(1) of the 2015 Act is not a strait-jacket here. The court thus has a

discretion, and I would apply it towards no order for reasons I will come to.

(ii) Even if I am wrong and s. 169(1) does apply, it does not wholly defeat the court’s

discretion because it is only a default – it applies “unless the court orders otherwise,

having regard to the particular nature and circumstances of the case, and the

conduct of the proceedings by the parties,” including specified matters. There are

three special factors in that regard which I would rely on individually and

cumulatively:

(a) the quasi-environmental nature of the proceedings is such as to tilt the

balance in favour of no order;

(b) the applicant had the benefit of an existing order of leave from Hyland J.

which involved a judicial determination that there was some arguable point

in his proceedings; and/or

(c) if the applicant had had a lawyer he would inevitably have been advised

to seek advance confirmation of costs protection, and in the event of a

dispute, to have that determined before this hearing, so he shouldn’t be

severely disadvantaged through lack of procedural knowledge.

63. If I am wrong on all of those points, we come to the partly domestic and partly European

issue of s. 169(5) and the Aarhus Convention. That would require serious thought and consideration

and I would have put the matter off for further hearing. In that context one could not in principle

preclude a reference to the CJEU. So I would not like to express a settled view on it without proper

argument and perhaps the assistance of relevant amici, given the applicant’s unrepresented status.

Even if one were to hypothetically take the most negative available view and accuse the applicant

of frivolity, something I am not saying, even such an applicant can’t be subjected to prohibitively

expensive costs if Aarhus applies.

64. So no order is the pragmatic option here, albeit that it may on one view require the court to

draw on its now unfashionable discretion in the matter of costs.

Summary

65. It is a fine line between explaining what steps an applicant has omitted versus advising their

proofs, but at the risk of the latter accusation I can say that the applicant has succeeded in identifying

a potentially arguable point in relation to the regulations, namely the reasonableness of the

conclusion that the impacts of such developments were limited so as to warrant exemption. From

that point of view, I agree with Hyland J. that there is a potentially arguable point arising from the

case. However I can now say with the benefit of full inter partes argument not available at the leave

stage that to progress that point the applicant would need to:

(i) confine the grounds to that arguable point or other arguable points (if any);

(ii) plead that point in legally correct and particularised terms;

(iii) set out factual matters sufficient to ground such a point;

(iv) plead appropriate declaratory relief;

(v) join the appropriate respondents;

(vi) name such respondents correctly;

(vii) situate the challenge in the context of an appropriate challenge to a specific

development or proposed development;

(viii) bring such a challenge within eight weeks of that development taking place, in the

case of an after-the-event challenge, or in anticipation of the development, in the

case of an apprehended step;

(ix) depose to facts demonstrating standing in such a factual context; and

(x) omit any inappropriate matter from his papers.

66. As the applicant hasn’t done any of this, and as some of these problems are not matters

that can be solved by permissible adjustment of the precise formulation of the pleaded case, leave

must be discharged here. But I will make clear in the order that this is without prejudice to the right

of the applicant to seek relief in any future properly pleaded proceedings. If the applicant does at

any future point bring further proceedings, I trust he won’t mind me recommending, in his own

interests as much as anybody’s, that he err on the side of leaving out the accusations of crime, fraud

and perjury. Generally speaking, that kind of thing doesn’t really assist the court in this type of

context.

Order

67. For the foregoing reasons, it is ordered that:

(i) without prejudice to the right of the applicant to seek similar relief in any future

properly constituted proceedings, there be an order pursuant to the inherent

jurisdiction of the court setting aside the order of the court made on 17th June 2024

and perfected on 18th June 2024 granting the applicant leave to apply for judicial

review, as sought at para. 1 of the notice of motion;

(ii) there be no order as to costs; and

(iii) the present order as the final order in the proceedings be perfected forthwith without

further listing.